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May 04, 2024, 11:45:36 am

Author Topic: TT's Maths Thread  (Read 118808 times)  Share 

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humph

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #165 on: November 25, 2009, 01:40:22 pm »
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It's asymptotically

where I used which is true because . Is that how you did it?  :)
Nah. I was trying to show that

Here's what I did:

Then , and

Also

and then using for and using the estimate , we get

Finally,


It wouldn't be very linear of me to use the fact that , as I prove in the next section that

though admittedly my proof is independent of the above result.
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Feel free to ask me about (advanced) mathematics.

Ahmad

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #166 on: November 25, 2009, 01:48:34 pm »
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Lagrange multipliers? Calculus is boss!

(*runs away to hide*)

I actually tried Lagrange multipliers on this question, it works. And it's not as ugly as it usually is.
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TrueTears

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #167 on: November 25, 2009, 03:43:37 pm »
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Heh another way to prove the RHS inequality without the substitution:

.

Applying AM-GM on yields:



Since is positive this means must all be positive or at least 2 of them is negative and 1 is positive.

Thus AM-GM can be applied.



(since )

Subbing this upper bound back yields

Thus
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TrueTears

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #168 on: November 25, 2009, 05:57:58 pm »
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3) Show that for all real values of the variables. Furthermore, give a condition for equality to hold.
Well good ol' induction solves this pretty well. (Thanks Ahmad xD)

Base case:

Let











Which is true because of Cauchy-Schwarz.

Inductive Hypothesis:

Assume the inequality is true for



is true.

Proof:

Need to prove it's true for



So let's add to our inductive hypothesis.

This yields:



Now if we can show

Then we have completed the proof.

Let and

Thus the inequality becomes







Which is true by Cauchy-Schwarz.

Thus
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/0

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #169 on: November 25, 2009, 07:13:29 pm »
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Very nice TT,

For Q2,





So our problem is reduced to finding the number closest to

I'm not very rigorous sorry lol...



Ahmad

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #170 on: November 25, 2009, 07:35:40 pm »
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I think it'd be great if we could have some combinatorics problems in here! Why? Simply put they require very little knowledge beyond knowing when to add, subtract, multiply and divide and they're a great way to improve at problem solving. (Only a suggestion, sorry if I'm ruining your thread TT :P)
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kamil9876

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #171 on: November 25, 2009, 08:09:25 pm »
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Yeah. It's one of my favourite topics in problem solving, along with number theory (especially when mixed together with number theory). We had quite a few nice ones in the other threads as well as one somewhere earlier in the thread :)

I did this one recently and think it is really nice: "Prove that the number of ways of writing n as a sum of consecutive natural numbers is equal to the number of odd divisors(greater than 1) of n"
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TrueTears

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #172 on: November 25, 2009, 09:52:30 pm »
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Very nice TT,

For Q2,





So our problem is reduced to finding the number closest to

I'm not very rigorous sorry lol...



Thanks /0 xD

I think it'd be great if we could have some combinatorics problems in here! Why? Simply put they require very little knowledge beyond knowing when to add, subtract, multiply and divide and they're a great way to improve at problem solving. (Only a suggestion, sorry if I'm ruining your thread TT :P)
Yeap, I'm moving onto combinatorics very soon, just gonna finish off the last exercise in algebra chapter and then combinatorics ftw!
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zzdfa

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #173 on: November 25, 2009, 10:58:18 pm »
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Yeh Combinatorics is fun because there are lots of different ways to think about things. I like interpreting equations.

 e.g. show that is integer for all integer n,m.


and solution to kamil's problem:

suppose p*q=n , with q odd.

then

do reverse gaussian pairing around the middle on the above, e.g:

2+2+2+2+2+2+2 -> -1+0+1+2+3+4+5

get rid of all the negatives in the equation by adding them to their positive counterparts : -1+0+1+2+3+4+5   -> 2+3+4+5

You can check that if then we will get different sums:
denote the maximum number in the sum generated by q as m(q):
m(q)=n/q+(q-1)/2
m(q')=n/q'+(q'-1)/2

bit of algebra and we find that m(q)=m(q') iff q=q' or qq'=2n. but odd*odd=odd so the only choice is q=q'.

so we have that every odd divisor gives rise to a unique sum.

and i can't be bothered doing the other way (sum gives rise to unique odd divisor), it's pretty much the same anyway.

« Last Edit: November 25, 2009, 11:09:33 pm by zzdfa »

TrueTears

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #174 on: November 25, 2009, 11:00:03 pm »
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lol you guys make combinatorics sound so fun, I seriously can't wait now =.=
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kamil9876

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #175 on: November 25, 2009, 11:26:34 pm »
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ah yeah very nice one. I did it by representing the integer as a rectangle, ie the product. Then defined a function for each rectangle that would change it into a desired shape. And of course, we had to prove this function is one to one and each rectangle and desired shape is accounted for and all those other details(a bijection). The picture helped me find the mapping, but yes I realised that to change it into something that I can communicate online, it would be best to make an argument such as yours, which turns out analogous in certain aspects.

Also, the reason why the factor 1 is excluded is because the mapping for such a rectangle will map a 1*n rectangle to itself, hence it will be a sum of "one consecutive number"
« Last Edit: November 26, 2009, 01:59:47 am by kamil9876 »
Voltaire: "There is an astonishing imagination even in the science of mathematics ... We repeat, there is far more imagination in the head of Archimedes than in that of Homer."

TrueTears

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #176 on: November 25, 2009, 11:27:25 pm »
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Let

Thus

We can approximate (Since )

Reciprocate the inequality yields:



This means or

Let's assume

This means is closer to than

Which implies:











We can approximate

Which is almost negligible small. Almost .

Thus



The RHS is almost (it is just a bit less)

While the LHS is smaller than by

This means the inequality holds.

Therefore is closer to than

So
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TrueTears

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #177 on: November 26, 2009, 12:06:17 am »
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1. Prove that for

2. Show that

3. Let be a sequence of positive numbers. Show that for all positive

« Last Edit: November 26, 2009, 10:11:17 pm by TrueTears »
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kamil9876

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #178 on: November 26, 2009, 01:19:29 am »
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consider the sequence:

1,2,3,4.....n

it's arithmetic mean is

It's geometric mean is:

GM<AM by AM-GM. From which the result follows.

I noticed this inequality has been used many times in this thread, I love this pic btw, saw it in a textbook(a better version tho :P )

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kamil9876

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Re: TT's Maths Thread
« Reply #179 on: November 26, 2009, 01:56:23 am »
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q3.)

consider the sequence of do some AM-GM.
Voltaire: "There is an astonishing imagination even in the science of mathematics ... We repeat, there is far more imagination in the head of Archimedes than in that of Homer."